BioTechnology Interview Questions and Answers
Can muscular dystrophy people take
clarithromycin 500mg by IV drip if they are allergic to erythromycin - cant find
muscular dystrophy people in the clinical trials? Could it destroy the
dystrophin gene and increase their CPK levels?
Clarithromycin is chemically related to erythromycin and almost certainly is cross-reactive - so if you are allergic to erythromycin you will most likely be allergic to clarithromycin as well.
Give an example for electrophilic
substitution reaction
The species, which accepts the electrons, are called Electrophilles (or) Electrophilic reagents. When the atom (or) group of atoms present in the organic compound is replaced by another atom (or) group of atoms (electrophilic) is called electrophilic substitution reaction.
Tell us about some drugs that can
cross the blood brain barrier .
Any drug that is designed to be given orally, i.m. s.c. or i.v. and acts
on the brain MUST cross the blood-brain barrier.
E.g. Opiates, anxiolytics,
SSRI's, anti-psychotics
Drug needs to be lipid (fat)
soluble to cross the BBB.
What would an inhalation, ingestion
exposure as well as to the eyes of Butane, Diethylene glycol monobutyl ether,
Monoethanolamine (MEA), & Sodium Hydroxide do to the human
body?
Sodium hydroxide is a very caustic substance - severe burns on skin
contact, can cause severe eye irritation and burning - can severely damage
surface of eye causing blindness (permanent), severe burring on ingestion and
inhalation.
See:
http://msds.chem.ox.ac.uk/SO/sodium_hydroxide.html
Likewise monoethanolamine - see:
http://www.luperox.com/plants/canada/msds/ORG0122.pdf
Butane is a gas - it is very
toxic if inhaled - acts like an anesthetic - can stop person breathing very
quickly.
See:
http://www.emedicine.com/emerg/byname/toxicity-hydrocarbons.htm
Diethyleneglycol monobutyl ether
is less acutely toxic but does have long-term toxicity on various organs.
When we do liquid extraction, what
is the effect of adding 10%acid or any base and how do we know which has to be
added and up to which concentration or micro liter level can we add such
buffers? If any gel formation occurs at the time of extraction, how will it
affect the analysis? Shall we continue the extraction with the same or should we
drop that method?
The idea of adding acid/base is to change the lipid (and therefore
organic solvent) solubility of the components you want to extract.
For example, a fatty acid is
more soluble in water as a salt (and, thus, in basic conditions) whereas it is
largely insoluble in water in its uncharged state (in acid conditions). So
adding acid to the solution of fatty acid salt in water will render it
water-insoluble and, thus, move it from the water to the organic solvent.
This is a standard extraction
technique for organic acids and bases. Also, note that exact concentrations of
acid/base need to be calibrated for each extraction.
Gel formation is difficult to
deal with, as you cannot be sure of the extraction (difficult to mix and
separate). We would suggest changing the method unless you can show a decent
extraction or the description of the method says to expect a gel formation.
How is the calculation derived for
a drug to be bioequivalent with other? On which base the limit is fixed as
80-120% for a drug to be bioequivalent. What is meant by 90% confidential
interval?
To be "bioequivalent" two preparations or drugs need to give the same
biological effect.
The usual "experimental error"
put on this is 20% - thus, 80-120% is considered "bioequivalent.”
90 percentage confidence
interval means that statistically it is 90% certain that the results are
equivalent.
How is the concentration of drugs
in human plasma defined?
Some drugs bind extensively to plasma proteins (Warfarin binds 99%)
whereas others have virtually no binding.
Extraction depends on the type
of drug - there are different standard techniques for acidic, basic, and neutral
drugs - and, indeed, some drugs need specific extraction techniques.
It is important for you doing
bioequivalence studies to know exactly the proportion of drug extracted but such
controls are again specific for each drug and use specific marker compounds.
Why is buprenorphine less addictive
than other opioids (like fentanyl) - is it explainable by its strength of
binding to the common receptor, or?
Buprenorphine is what is referred to as a partial agonist - i.e. it binds
to the receptor but even at its maximum cannot give as much of an effect as a
full agonist (such as morphine) - it is, thus, also a partial antagonist
(partially inhibits the actions of full agonists).
As addiction is likely to be
linked to strength of the effect of the drug, buprenorphine has less effect and,
therefore, less addiction.
Is Phenoxyethanol
harmful?
Phenoxyethanol is harmful and can be absorbed through the skin - official sites for toxicity data, however, show little toxicity in man and some toxicity (irritation) with high doses in animals. Phenoxyethanol is in cosmetics as a bactericide (kills bacteria).
What is the definition of
“Biomedical”? What topics cover the Study of Biomedical
Sciences?
The term "biomedical" covers a vast range of subjects - everything that relates biology to medicine. This can range from the obvious like Anatomy, Biochemistry, Physiology, Microbiology, Pharmacology, Genetics to the less obvious like Botany (most drugs were originally derived from plants and, thus, these is a big science called Phytopharmacology).
Do you know how the dose for
children is being estimated based on preclinical data?
There are a number of ways of estimating children's doses from
preclinical (adult) data - often depends on the therapeutic index of the drug in
question (the wider the therapeutic window the less accurate the child's dose
needs to be). Sometimes straight weight-basis i.e. 7kg child gets 1/10 dose of
70kg adult.
More accurate (so they say) is a
dose based on body surface area (child's surface area is greater in proportion
to its body weight than an adult is). There are normograms to calculate surface
area from weight and height of child.
All of these may be wrong if
clearance of drug in child is significantly different from adult e.g. different
metabolism or different route of clearance.
Which type of immunoglobulin level
will increase when an individual is exposed to a
parasite?
Serum IgE levels will increase and remain until the parasite is washed out from the body.
What are
allergens?
Allergens are non-parasitic antigens. They are capable of stimulating hypersensitive reactions in allergy conditions in an individual.
Name some common allergens
associated with type-I hypersensitivity.
Penicillin, sulfonamide, eggs, milk, dust mites, animal air, vaccines etc.
What is
atopy?
The tendency to manifest localized anaphylactic reactions is called atopy.
Who are atopic
individuals?
Atopic individuals are those who are having abnormal high levels of circulating IgE and more than normal number of oesinophils.
Where do most allergic reactions
occur?
Most of them occur on mucous membrane. Allergens enter the body by the process of inhalation or ingestion.
What is P-K
reaction?
The response produced when an allergen is injected into an individual, who is sensitive is called P-K reaction.
What are high affinity
receptors?
Mast cells and basophils express high affinity receptor. The high affinity enables it to bind with IgE, despite low serum concentration of IgE.
What are low affinity
receptors?
Low affinity receptors play role in regulating he intensity of IgE response.
What are primary
mediators?
Primary mediators are those, which are produced before degranulation. These primary mediators are stored in granules. Some of the primary mediators are histamine, heparin, proteases etc.
What are secondary
mediators?
Secondary mediators are produced after target cell
activation or released by the break down of phospholipids membrane during the
process of degarnulation. Some of the secondary mediators are leukotrienes,
various cytokines, prostaglandins etc.
Explain in
brief about histamine
It is formed by the decarboxylation of amino acid histidine.
It accounts for 10% of granule weight. This histamine binds to specific
receptors on various target cells.
How many types
of histamine receptors are there and what are they?
There are three types of histamine receptors. They are H1,
H2 and H3.They has different tissue distributions.
What is the
reaction-taking place when H2 receptor binds to mast cells and basophils?
When H2 binds to mast cells and basophils it suppresses
degranulation.
Explain in
brief about leukotrienes and prostaglandins
Leukotrienes and prostaglandins are formed only when
the mast cell undergo degranulation and enzymatic break down of phospholipids in
the plasma membrane.
The effects
produced by them are more pronounced and long lasting than histamine.
Leukotrienes mediate mucous production and bronchoconstriction. Prostaglandin D2
causes bronchoconstriction.
Explain in
brief about cytokines
Cytokines activate inflammatory cells such as neutrophils
and eosnophils.IL-5 is important in activation of eosnophils, IL-4 increases IgE
production by B-cells. IL-4, Il-5, IL-6, TNF-a has been secreted by human mast
cells.
What is atopic
dermatitis?
Atopic dermatitis is an inflammatory skin disease. This
disease is observed frequently in young children. There will be skin eruptions.
What is
erythroblastosis fetalis?
It is a hemolytic disease, which develops in newborn.
Maternal IgG antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the red bleed cells. This
develops when an Rh+ expresses an Rh antigen on blood cells that the mother does
not express.
What is a
rhogam?
Is an antibody that binds to any of the blood cells, enter
the mother’s blood circulation, and facilitate their clearance by activation of
B-cells and memory cell production.
What is type I
hypersensitivity?
It is IgE mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations
include asthma, food allergies, eczema, hay fever etc.
What is type II
hypersensitivity?
It is IgG mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity. Typical
manifestations include erythroblastosis fetalis, hemolytic anemia, blood
transfusion reactions etc.
What is type
III hypersensitivity?
It is immune complex mediated hypersensitivity. Typical
manifestations include rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, necrotizing etc.
What is type IV
hypersensitivity?
It is cell-mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations
include graft rejection, dermatitis etc.
What is serum
sickness?
When an individual is exposed to foreign serum antigen then
a combination of symptoms are produced which is called as serum sickness.
Give some
symptoms of serum sickness.
Symptoms include fever, weakness, rashes, with erythema and
edema. Serum sickness depends on the immune complexes formed and the size of the
complexes.
Name some
Infectious diseases.
Some of the Infectious diseases are Malaria, meningitis,
trypanosomiasis, hepatitis etc…
Name some
autoimmune diseases.
Rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, good
pasture’s syndrome
How many types
of hypersensitive reactions are there?
There are four types of hypersensitive reactions,
they are:
Type I
hypersensitive reaction
Type II
hypersensitive reaction
Type III
hypersensitive reaction
Type IV
hypersensitive reaction
What are the
steps in bacterial infection?
There are four steps in bacterial infection. They
are:
Attachment
to host
Proliferation
Invasion of
host tissue
Toxin-induced damage to host cell
What is the
disease caused by Rotavirus?
The disease caused by rotavirus is infantile diarrhea.
What is the
disease caused by Sabia virus?
Brazilian haemorrhagic
What is the
disease caused by Ebola virus?
Ebola haemorrhagic fever
What is the
disease caused by Hepatitis C?
Non-A, Non-B hepatitis are commonly transmitted via
transfusion.
What is the
disease caused by toxin producing strains of Staphylococcus aureus?
Toxic shock syndrome
What is the
disease caused by HIV?
The disease caused by HIV is AIDS
What is the
disease caused by Influenza A subtype H5N1?
Avian influenza
What is the
disease caused by Nipah virus and West Nile virus?
Encephalitis
What is the
disease caused by Hepatitis E?
Enteric Non-A, Non-B hepatitis
What is the
disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi?
Lyme disease
What is the
disease caused by Cryptosporidium parvum?
Acute chronic diarrhea
What is the
disease caused by Hantavirus?
Haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome
What is the
disease caused by Helicobacter pylori?
Peptic ulcers
What is the
disease caused by Guanarito virus?
Venezuelan haemorrhagic fever
What is the
disease caused by Encephalitozzon hellem?
Conjunctivitis, disseminated disease
What is the
disease caused by Human T-lymphotrophic virus-I?
T-cell lymphoma
What is the
disease caused by Escherichia coli 0157:H7?
Haemorrhagic colitis
What is the
disease caused by Vibrio cholerae 0139?
New strain of epidemic cholerae
What is the
disease caused by Human T-lymphotrophic virus II?
Hairy cell leukemia
What is the
disease caused by Campylobacter jejuni?
Enteric diseases
What is the
disease caused by Legionella pneumophilia?
Legionnaire’s disease
What is the
disease caused by Bartonella henselae?
Cat scratch disease
What is the
disease caused by Human herpes virus – 8?
It is associated with Kaposi sarcoma in AIDS patients.
What is the
disease caused by TSE causing agents?
New variant of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
What is the
disease caused by influenza ‘A’ subtype H9N2?
New strain of human influenza
What happens
when gastrointestinal exposure occurs?
Gastrointestinal exposure results in bloody diarrhea, ulcers
in ileum or cecum and sepsis and it is very difficult to diagnosis.
What happens
when cutaneous exposure occurs?
Cutaneous exposure results in skin lesions.
How passive
immunity is acquired?
Passive immunity is acquired through natural maternal
antibodies, antitoxin, and immunoglobulin.
How is active
immunity acquired?
Active immunity is acquired through vaccines, attenuated
organisms, toxoid, natural infection, cloned microbial antigens, etc.
Normally at
what age vaccination of children begins.
Vaccination of children begins at the age of 2 months.
What is a
toxoid?
Inactivating the toxin with formaldehyde is toxoid.
Why purified
macromolecules are used as vaccines?
To avoid the risk associated with attenuated and killed
whole organism vaccines.
Name some
purified macromolecules derived from pathogens.
They are capsular polysaccharides, inactivated exotoxins and
recombinant microbial antigens.
What is the
full form of AIDS?
Full form of AIDS is acquired Immunodeficiency syndrome.
How AIDS is
caused?
It is caused by the infection of HIV 1 i.e. human
immunodeficiency virus.
What is a
retrovirus?
It is a class of viruses having RNA genome and reverse
transcriptase enzyme within virus cuspid.
What is a
provirus?
It is the DNA representing, the genome of virus that has
been integrated into the DNA of the host.
How HIV
infection is mainly spread?
It is mainly spread by sexual contact, blood transfers and
from HIV infected mother to child.
What is the
treatment for HIV?
Anti-retroviral drugs are given. They lower the viral load
and gives relief from infection, but it is not permanent it is temporary relief
i.e. it cannot cure.
What does HIV
results?
HIV results in impairment of immune function by depletion oh
CD4+ T cells.
What does
immunodeficiency results?
Immunodeficiency results in failure of one or more
components of immune system.
What does
myeloid immunodeficiency cause?
Myeloid immunodeficiency causes phagocytic function, which
is impaired. Those who are affected with this will suffer with increase in
susceptibility to bacterial infection.
What do most
vaccines function as?
Most of the vaccines prevent disease but not infection.
What are major
successful vaccines?
Major successful vaccines are live attenuated and heat
killed vaccines.
What is the
current treatment given to AIDS?
Current treatment given to AIDS is HAART (highly active anti
retroviral therapy).It is a combination therapy.
What does HAART
do?
HAART will lower the viral load and improves the health of
the patients who are suffering with AIDS.
What is the
first overt indication of AIDS?
The first overt indication of AIDS may be infection with the
fungus Candida albicans, which causes sores in the mouth and in women
vulvovaginal yeast infection is formed that will not respond to the treatment
given.
How viral load
can be measured?
Viral load is measured by PCR based techniques.
What is an
abzyme?
It is a monoclonal antibody, which has catalytic activity.
What is
adoptive transfer?
The ability to participate in the immune response by the
process of transplantation of cells is adoptive transfer.
What is an
agglutinin?
A substance can mediate clumping of the cells or particles.
What is
agglutination?
Clumping of particles or cells is called agglutination.
What is an
agretope?
The region of an antigenic peptide, which binds to MCH
molecule, is known as agretope.
What is
antigenic drift?
Series of point mutations that cause minor antigenic
variations in the pathogens
What is
apoptosis?
Changes those are associated with programmed cell death,
including release of apoptotic bodies, blebbing, and nuclear fragmentation.
What is
autograft?
Grafting of tissues from one part of the body to another in
the same individual is called as autograft.
What is
antigenic competition?
Antigenic competition is the inhibition of immune response
to an antigen by immunization with different antigens.
What is
bradykinin?
A peptide producing inflammatory response.
What is a
bispecific antibody?
It is made by cross-linking two different antibodies or by
fusion of two hybridomas, which produce monoclonal antibodies.
What is a
booster?
Boosters are given to stimulate immunological memory
response.
What is
BCG?
It is an attenuated form of Mycobacterium bovis. It is used
as vaccine and as an adjuvant compound.
What is chronic
lymphocytic leukemia?
In this type if leukemia cancerous cells are continuously
produced.
What is an
effector cell?
Any cell that can mediate immune response is called as
effector cell.
What is an
effector response?
It is the response produced after recognition and binding of
an antigen by antibody.
What is
erythropoiesis?
Generation of red blood cells is called as erythropoiesis.
What are
interferons?
Interferons are small glycoproteins produced by
virus-infected cells that inhibit viral infection. They are heterogeneous. Gamma
interferons induce MHC class II antigens in macrophages, B cells, and
endothelial cells.
What is immuno
adsorption?
It is removal of an antigen or antibody from a sample by the
process of adsorption, to which the complimentary antigen or antibody is bound.
What is
immunofluorescence?
Staining cells or tissues with fluorescent antibodies and
visualize them under a fluorescent microscope.
What is an
immunotoxin?
Immunotoxin is produced by conjugating or combining an
antibody with highly toxic agent.
What is immune
complex?
It is a complex of antibody bound to antigen, which includes
complement components.
What are
intracellular pathogens?
These microbial agents grow within a cell.
Example:
Viruses and intracellular bacteria like Salmonella.
What is isotope
switching?
It is conversion of antibody class to another resulting from
genetic rearrangement of heavy chain constant region genes in B cells. Isotope
switching is also called as class switching.
What is
lysogeny?
The condition in which viral genome that is provirus
associated with host genome in a way that the viral genes remain in unexpressed
state.
What is
microglial cell?
Macrophage found in central nervous system is called
microglial cell.
What are MHC
molecules?
Proteins that are encoded by major histocompatibility
complex
What is a
myeloma cell?
It is a cancerous plasma cell.
What is
myeloma protein?
It is a monoclonal immunoglobulin, which is produced by
myeloma cell.
What is
multiple sclerosis?
It is an autoimmune disease, which affects the central
nervous system.
What is a
pathogen?
Pathogen is a disease-causing organism.
What is a
stem cell?
It is a cell, from which differentiated cells derive.
What is
tapasin?
It is a protein that is associated with class I MHC
molecules.
What is a
vaccine?
It is a preparation of antigenic material used to induce
immunity against pathogens.
What are
tumor antigens?
Tumor antigens are cell surface proteins, which are present
on the surface of tumor cells that induce cell-mediated immune response.
Name the
parasite, which causes malaria?
Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium falcifarum
Name the
parasite, which causes leishmaniasis.
Leishmania species
Name the
parasite, which causes chagas disease.
Trypanosoma cruzi
Name the
parasite, which causes sleeping sickness or trypanosomiasis.
Trypanosoma rhodense, Trypanosoma gambiense
What is the
mechanism of host defense in malaria?
Blocks invasion and opsonises for phagocytosis
What is the
mechanism of host defense in leishmaniasis?
Restrict the spread of disease.
What is the
mechanism of host defense in chagas disease?
Lysis in presence of compliment
What is the
mechanism of host defense in trypanosomiasis?
Opsonises for phagocytosis
What is the
response type and activity shown by effector molecule IgA?
It is Humoral response.
Activity:
Blocks binding of virus to host cells, thus preventing infection
What is the
response type and activity shown by effector molecules IgG, IgM and IgA?
It is Humoral response. Activity: Blocks fusion of viral
envelope to the cell plasma membrane.
What is the
response type and activity shown by effector molecule IgG, IgM?
It is Humoral response. Activity: enhances phagocytosis by
opsonization.
What is the
response type and activity shown by effector molecule IgM?
It is Humoral response. Activity: Agglutination
What is the
response type and activity shown by effector molecule compliment activated by
IgG or IgM?
It is Humoral response. Activity: Mediated opsonization
What is the
response type and activity shown by effector molecule IFN ? secreted by TH or TC
cell?
Cell mediated immune response.
Activity:
Direct antiviral activity
What is the
response type and activity shown by effector molecule cytotoxic T cells?
Cell mediated immune response.
Activity:
Kills virus infected self-cells.
What is the
response type and activity shown by effector molecule natural killer cell
macrophages?
Cell mediated immune response.
Activity:
Kills virus infected cells by ADCC.
What is the
host defense mechanism shown if an attachment is made to host cell?
Blockage of attachment by secretory IgA antibodies
What is the
host defense mechanism shown if the infection is through proliferation?
Phagocytosis compliment mediated lysis localized
inflammatory response.
What is the
host defense mechanism shown if the infection is through invasion of host
tissues?
Antibody mediated agglutination.
What is the
host defense mechanism shown if the infection is through toxin-induced damage of
host cells?
Neutralization of toxin by antibodies
What is an
exon?
The region of a gene that contains coding sequences for a
polypeptide is called Exon.
What is an
intron?
The nucleotide sequence present between exons of a gene.
They can be removed by the process of splicing.
What is
immunolabeling?
Labeling molecules by the use of antibodies bound to
another molecule that serves as labels for an antigen antibody complex.
What is
immunoblotting?
This is a technique to determine the presence of an antigen
by the reaction of labeled antibodies to the antigen. This is done after
separating the antigens according to the size or charge by gel electrophoresis.
What is
i-gene?
A bacterial gene codes for lac-operon repressor protein.
What is an
iso antigen?
It is produced only by some members of a species but not
the others. These are capable of eliciting immune response in the individuals
that lack the antigen.
What is the
other name of isoantigen?
The other name is Alloantigen.
Give an
example for alloantigen.
Blood group antigens are alloantigens.
Name some
features of a secondary immune response that distinguish it from primary immune
response
Secondary immune response requires an amplified population
of memory cells. Response is more rapid compared to primary immune response. It
achieves higher levels than primary response.
Describe
major events in the inflammatory response.
The following are the major events in the inflammatory
response: The diameter of the capillaries increases in the affected region and
their permeability, which facilitates influx of white blood cells.
What does the
following sentence means? “T cell is said to be class I restricted”.
It means that they can recognize the antigen, which is,
associated with class I MHC molecules.
Name the
assay method for IgG in serum.
The method is ELISA.
Name the
assay method for compliment component C3 on glomerular basement membrane.
Immunofluorescence
Name the
assay method for horsemeat combination of hamburger
Agglutination
Name the
assay method for insulin in serum
ELISA or RIA
How B cell
hybridomass are formed?
They are formed by the fusion of antigen primed B cells
with cancerous plasma cells.
Expand cell
line HL-60.
Human myeloid leukemia cell line
Give brief
description of cell line L-929
It is mouse-fibroblast cell line used in DNA transfection.
Moreover, it is used to assay tumor necrosis factor.
What is the
significance of cell line COS-1?
It is used in DNA transfection.
Give brief
description of jurkat cell line
It is human T-cell leukemia, which secretes IL-2.
Give the
significance of P-815.
It is used as a target to access killing by cytotoxic T
lymphocytes.
Give the
significance of YAC-1.
It is used as target for natural killer cells.
Give the
significance of CTLL-2.
It is used to assay IL-2 production.
Give the
description of SP2/O cell line and its significance.
It is non-secreting mouse myeloma and used as a fusion
partner for hybridoma secretion.
What is the
target antigen for T cell leukemia?
The antigen for T cell is CD5.
What is the
target antigen for B cell lymphoma?
Antigen for B cell is CD20.
What is the
target antigen for anti idiotype tumor antigen?
Immunoglobulin
What are
exogenous antigens?
Antigens, which are produced outside the host cell, are
called exogenous antigens.
What is the
target antigen for acute myeloblastic leukemia?
CD45 is for acute myloblastic leukemia
What is the
target antigen for colon cancer?
Glycoprotein
What is the
target antigen for breast and ovarian tumors?
Cell surface EGF binding protein
What is the
target antigen for neuroectodermal tumors?
Glycolipids associated with neural tissues.
What is the
target antigen for breast cancer?
Glycoprotein
What is
autograft?
It is nothing but grafting self-tissue
from one body site to another in the same individual.
Ex.: In
burnt cases.
What is
isograft?
It is nothing but grafting between genetically identical
individuals.
What is
allograft?
It is nothing but grafting between genetically different
individuals of the same species.
What is
xenograft?
It is nothing but grafting between different species.
What is the
self-antigen for good pasture’s syndrome?
Renal and lung basement membranes
What is the
self-antigen for Addison’s disease?
Adrenal cells
What is the
self-antigen for perinicious anemia?
Gastric perietal cells
What is the
self-antigen for grave’s disease?
Thyroid stimulating receptor
What is the
self-antigen for rheumatoid arthritis?
Connective tissue, IgG
What is the
self-antigen for scleroderma?
Heart, lungs, kidney, nuclei, gastro intestinal tract
What is the
self-antigen for myocardial infarction?
The self-antigen is Heart.
What is the
self-antigen for insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?
Pancreatic beta cells
What is the
self-antigen for autoimmune haemolytic anemia?
RBC membrane proteins
What is a
monoclonal antibody?
It is an antibody produced from a single antibody-producing
cell.
How
monoclonal antibodies are produced?
Monoclonal antibodies are produced by hybridoma clones.
What are
polyclonal antibodies?
Antibodies of different specificities, which react to the
same antigen, are called polyclonal antibodies.
How are the
polyclonal antibodies produced?
They are produced by different plasma cell clones.
What is the
natural toxin found in the endosperm of castor?
The toxin found is Ricin.
What is
immunopurification?
Purifying antigens present in small quantities as a mixture
by interacting an antibody to an antigen.
Name the
major types of interferons.
1) Interferon a
2)
Interferon ß
3)
Interferon ?
How
Interferon a is produced?
It is produced by leukocytes or WBCs.
How
Interferon ß is produced?
It is produced by fibroblasts.
How
Interferon ? is produced?
It is produced by stimulated T lymphocyte.
What is
interferon induced antiviral state?
Interferon reacting with interferon receptors of a cell,
after which the cell enters in a state called interferon, induced antiviral
state.
What are
endogenous antigens?
Antigens, which are produced within the host cell, are
called endogenous antigens.
What is
clonal selection?
Proliferation of B cells in response to interaction with an
antigen is called clonal selection.
What is naïve
B cell?
Mature B cell is called naïve B cell.
What are
altered self-cells?
The cytotoxic T lymphocytes which kill foreign antigens
complexes with MHC I molecules are called altered self-cells.
What are
immunoglobulin folds?
Immunoglobulin domains are folded into compact structures,
which are called as immunoglobulin folds.
What is
exotoxin?
Toxin produced by a microorganism, which is released into
surrounding fluid, is called exotoxin.
What is the
function CD4 antigen?
It acts as a co receptor for MHC class II restricted T cell
activation; receptor for HIV.
What is a
thymocyte?
It is a developing T cell, which is present in the thymus.
What is
secreted immunoglobulin?
It is a form of antibody, which is secreted by cells of B
lineage.
What is an
alveolar macrophage?
Macrophage, which is found in alveolus of the lung, is
alveolar macrophage.
What is
clonal energy?
It is a state, in which the antigen
cannot activate the cells.
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